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skin cancer

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on skin cancer.

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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Advise observation for a further 3 months to assess for changes
B. Order a full blood count and inflammatory markers
C. Perform cryotherapy in the clinic
D. Referral to a dermatologist for assessment and biopsy
E. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old male presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past six months. He reports no pain, itching, or bleeding. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Given the clinical presentation and morphology, what is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A. Punch biopsy of the lesion
B. Reassure the patient and arrange review in 12 months
C. Prescribe topical antibiotic cream
D. Prescribe high-potency topical corticosteroid cream
E. Arrange immediate wide surgical excision
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 62-year-old man presents with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past 8 months. He reports occasional tenderness but no bleeding. He has a significant history of outdoor work and multiple previous sunburns. His medical history is otherwise clear. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion appears as shown in the image. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Arrange for cryotherapy of the lesion.
B. Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion.
C. Refer immediately for wide local excision.
D. Apply topical imiquimod cream daily.
E. Schedule a follow-up appointment in 3 months to monitor for changes.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old man presents to his general practitioner reporting a lesion on his nose that he first noticed approximately three months ago. He describes it as initially resembling a persistent pimple, but notes it has not resolved and appears to be slowly increasing in size. He denies any associated pain, itching, or bleeding from the site. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he is not currently taking any regular medications. He works outdoors in a role involving significant sun exposure but admits to inconsistent use of sun protection measures. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. The lesion in question is located on his nose and has the appearance shown in the accompanying image. No other suspicious skin lesions are identified elsewhere on his body, and regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion depicted, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
B. Arrange an urgent ultrasound scan of the nose and regional lymph nodes to assess for depth and spread.
C. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream and review in two weeks.
D. Advise the patient to monitor the lesion for further changes and return in three months if it persists or grows.
E. Initiate treatment with a high-potency topical corticosteroid cream twice daily.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Reassure the patient and arrange for review in 3 months.
B. Prescribe a course of topical corticosteroid cream.
C. Initiate a course of oral antibiotics.
D. Arrange for cryotherapy to the lesion.
E. Perform a biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has gradually increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the lesion. Based on the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Advise observation and review in 6 months.
B. Perform an excisional biopsy for histological examination.
C. Refer urgently to a dermatologist for Mohs surgery.
D. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream.
E. Arrange for cryotherapy in the clinic.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents with a slowly growing lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. He reports occasional mild discomfort but no bleeding. He has a history of significant sun exposure due to his occupation. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. On examination, vital signs are normal. The lesion appears as shown in the image. Regional lymph nodes are not enlarged. Considering the patient's history, risk factors, and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Apply a high-potency topical corticosteroid cream
B. Excisional or incisional biopsy of the lesion
C. Observe the lesion for a further 3 months and review
D. Order a CT scan of the facial bones and sinuses
E. Refer directly to a plastic surgeon for cosmetic removal
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A patient has Bowen's disease on their trunk. Which exposure is a significant risk factor for Bowen's disease, especially in non-sun-exposed areas?

A. Smoking
B. Chronic UV radiation
C. HPV infection
D. Arsenic exposure
E. Immunosuppression
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 72-year-old woman presents to her oncologist for follow-up. She underwent a left simple mastectomy for invasive ductal carcinoma 10 years ago. She reports a new, persistent skin change on her left chest wall over the past few months. Physical examination reveals the findings depicted. A recent biopsy of the affected area confirmed the presence of malignant cells consistent with Paget's disease. Considering the patient's history and the biopsy findings, which of the following investigations is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A. Genetic testing for BRCA mutations
B. Topical imiquimod application
C. Repeat biopsy of the lesion
D. PET-CT scan for systemic staging
E. Wide local excision of the lesion
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been present for several months and seems to be slowly enlarging. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. The lesion is as shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation, risk factors, and the appearance of the lesion, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding management?

A. Referral for cryotherapy
B. Application of topical corticosteroid cream twice daily
C. Punch biopsy for bacterial culture and sensitivity
D. Excisional or incisional biopsy for histological examination
E. Reassurance and review in three months
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past 4 months. He reports no associated pain, itching, or bleeding. He is otherwise well, with no significant past medical history. On examination, vital signs are within normal limits. The lesion is as shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Refer the patient directly for Mohs micrographic surgery.
B. Arrange for cryotherapy to the lesion.
C. Prescribe a course of oral antibiotics.
D. Excisional or incisional biopsy of the lesion.
E. Prescribe a high-potency topical corticosteroid cream.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has slowly increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Reassure the patient and review in 3 months.
B. Excisional biopsy for histological assessment.
C. Prescribe a course of topical corticosteroid cream.
D. Refer immediately for Mohs micrographic surgery.
E. Arrange for cryotherapy in the clinic.
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